Prophecy Q & A: "Apostasy Or Rapture, Follow Up" Jack Kelley


 

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Jack Kelley

 Apostasy Or Rapture, Follow Up

 

 

Q. In referring to 2 Thessalonians 2, and the use of the word apostasy, you are trying to force some kind of chronology in support of pre trib rapture. It amounts to a miss-translation: the word which is translated as apostasy or falling away in some translations, should be understood to mean the rapture. Don’t get me wrong, I agree with pre-trib rapture, but look at what is being said. The apostasy is the rapture.

 

A. Ever since the King James was first published in 1611, the Greek word apostasia from2 Thes. 2:3 has been understood to mean to forsake or defect, and is almost universally translated as a falling away or rebellion. The only other place it’s used is in Acts 21:21where it speaks of Paul teaching the Gentiles to forsake (apostasia) the teaching of Moses.  It comes from a root meaning to repudiate or divorce. To think of it as the rapture is inconsistent with its meaning, and not one of the major English translations uses it this way.

The Greek word harpazo, from which we get rapture, implies the catching up of a desired object by someone for himself.  It’s the opposite of a falling away or rebellion. Therefore the apostasy of 2 Thes. 2:3 is not the rapture.

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